Gujarat technological University
Information Technology
Semester : 8
Subject code : 180703
Subject name : Artificial Intelligence
Examination : Summer 2014
Total Marks : 70 Mark
Time: 10:30 pm - 01:00 pm
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Tourism and Hospitality Management September, October 2012 Question paper
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Post Graduate Diploma in Tourism and Hospitality Management
Principles and Practices of Management
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Total Marks: 80
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Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Principles and Practices of Tourism Management
Post Graduate Diploma in Tourism and Hospitality Management
September, October 2012
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Duration of examination: 3
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Tourism Products and Resources of India September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Tourism Products and Resources of India
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Post Graduate Diploma in Tourism and Hospitality Management
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Hospitality Management September-October, 2012 Question paper
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Post Graduate Diploma in Tourism and Hospitality Management
September, October 2012
Hospitality Management
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Travel Agency and Tour Operation Management September-October, 2012 Question paper
Travel Agency and Tour Operation Management
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
September, October 2012
Post Graduate Diploma in Tourism and Hospitality Management
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Commerce – Marketing Management September-October, 2012 Question paper
Name of the Board / University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Question Paper Title: Commerce – Marketing Management
Year of examination conducted: September, October 2012
Name of the Course: Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
Total Marks: 80
Duration of examination: 3
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Commerce – Marketing Research and Consumer Behaviour September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Marketing Research and Consumer Behaviour
University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Year of examination : September, October 2012
Name of the Course: Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
Total Marks: 80
Duration of examination: 3
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Commerce – Marketing Research and Consumer Behaviour September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Marketing Research and Consumer Behaviour
University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Year of examination : September, October 2012
Name of the Course: Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
Total Marks: 80
Duration of examination: 3
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Commerce – Agricultural and Rural Marketing September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
September, October 2012
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Duration of examination: 3
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Commerce – Agricultural and Rural Marketing September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
September, October 2012
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Commerce – Services Marketing and Customer Relationship Management September-October, 2012 Question paper
Post Graduate Diploma Marketing Management
Kuvempu University
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Post Graduate Diploma Marketing Management
Kuvempu University
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Kuvempu University
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International Marketing September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
International Marketing
Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
September, October 2012
Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing Management
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Introduction to Legal Theory and Law and Social Transformation September-October, 2012 Questions Paper
Name of the Board / University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Question Paper Title: Introduction to Legal Theory and Law and Social Transformation
Year of examination conducted: September, October 2012
Total Marks: 80
Duration of examination: 3
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Directorate of Distance Education
National Legal System
September-October, 2012
Total Marks: 80
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Intellectual Property Law, Concepts, Patents and Plant Varieties September-October, 2012, Questions Paper
Name of the Board / University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Question Paper Title: Intellectual Property Law, Concepts, Patents and Plant Varieties
Year of examination conducted: September, October 2012
Name of the Course: Post Graduate Diploma in Intellectual Property Rights
Total Marks: 80
Duration of examination: 3
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Intellectual Property Law, Copyrights, Designs and Integrated Circuits September-October, 2012, Questions Paper
University: Directorate of Distance Education, Kuvempu University
Intellectual Property Law, Copyrights, Designs and Integrated Circuits
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Refrigeration and Air conditioning Summer 2014 Question paper
University : Gujarat technological University
Course : Mechanical engineering
Semester : 8
Subject code : 181901
Examination : Summer 2014
Total Marks : 70 Mark
Time: 10:30 pm - 01:00 pm
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Machine Design-II Summer 2014 Question paper
University : Gujarat technological University
Course : Mechanical engineering
Semester : 8
Examination : Summer 2014
Total Marks : 70 Mark
Time: 02:30 pm - 05:00 pm
Date: 29-11-2014
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Production Technology Summer 2014 Question paper
University : Gujarat technological University
Course : Mechanical engineering
Semester : 8
Total Marks : 70 Mark
Time: 02:30 pm - 05:00 pm
Date: 02-12-2014
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Thermal Engineering Summer 2014 Question paper
Course : Mechanical engineering
University : Gujarat technological University
Semester : 8
Examination : Summer 2014
Total Marks : 70 Mark
Time: 02:30 pm - 05:00 pm
Date: 27-11-2014
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MCNE-060: International Marketing June, 2013 Question paper
University: Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Course: Master of Business Administration (MBA)
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University: Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Course: Master of Business Administration (MBA)
Specialization: EVERONN (MBAEV)
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Specialization: EVERONN (MBAEV)
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MCNE-070: International Financial Management June, 2013 Question paper
University: Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
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MCNE-070: International Financial Management June, 2013 Question paper
University: Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
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Automobile Body Engineering Summer 2014 Question paper
University : Gujarat technological University
Course : Mechanical engineering
Semester : 8
Total Marks : 70 Mark
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Date: 25-11-2014
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Anna University Nov Dec 2014 Jan 2015 UG/PG 1st 3rd 5th 7th Sem Examination Results
Anna University,Chennai
Anna University Nov Dec 2014 UG PG Results
Anna University UG/PG 1st 3rd 5th 7th Semester Results
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TRADE MARKS April 2012 Question paper
Post Graduate Diploma PG Diploma
University of Pune
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Annamalai University
B.A English First year
ubject:part-I-hindi-prose and drama
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FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Summer 2012 Question paper
University of Pune
Other Certifications
Certificate Course in Forensic Science and Medical Jurisprude
Subject- FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY
Examination:-Summer 2012
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University of Pune
Other Certifications
Certificate Course in Forensic Science and Medical Jurisprude
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LAW OF CONTRACT Summer 2012 Question paper
University of Pune L.LB
General L.L.B
Semester-I
Subject- LAW OF CONTRACT - I
Syllabus Pattern-2003
Examination:-Summer 2012
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General L.L.B.- I
University of Pune
Semester-I
Subject- LABOUR LAWS
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University of Pune L.LB
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Semester-I
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University of Pune L.LB
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Analog Electronic Circuits 2013 Question paper
B.Tech Electronics Engineering
Andhra University
B.Tech Second Year
Time: 3 Hours
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B.Tech Electronics Engineering
Andhra university
Semester II
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Andhra University
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Annamalai University B.A English
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year:second year, conducted in -may 2014
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General L.L.B.- I
Semester-I
University of Pune
Subject- CRIMINOLOGY & PENOLOGY
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University of Pune L.LB
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Subject- INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC LAW
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University of Pune L.L.B
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Semester-II
Subject- CONSTITUTIONAL LAW
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niversity of Pune L.LB General L.L.B.- II
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University of Pune
L.LB General L.L.B.- II
Semester- III
Subject- ARBITRATION CONCILIATION AND ALTERNATIVE DISPUTES RESOLUTION SYSTEMS
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Engineering Physics : 1A2/1SCT2 B. E./B. Tech (Chem. Engg. /Poly(Plas) (Chem. Tech./B. Text) 2014 Summer Questions Paper
First Semester
Name of the University: Sant Gadge Baba Amravati University
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Sant Gadge Baba Amravati University
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University of Pune
L.LB General L.L.B.- II
Semester-IV
Subject- LAW OF INSURANCE
Syllabus Pattern-2003
Examination:-Summer 2012
PRACTICAL TRAINING- IV Summer 2012 Questions Paper
Public Interests Lawyering, Legal Aid and Para-Legal Services
University of Pune L.LB General L.L.B.- II Semester-IV
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2012 University of Pune L.LB General L.L.B.- II Semester-IV
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University Grant Commission National Education Testing (NET) Bureau
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Question Paper 2014 Question paper
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ME 2305 – APPLIED HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS Two Marks Questions With Answers 2015
Anna University, Chennai
ME 2305 – APPLIED HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS UNIT – I FLUID POWER SYSTEM AND FUNDAMENTALS
TWO MARK WITH ANSWER
1. Define Fluid Power System. (Nov Dec 05) /(Nov/Dec11)
A system that transmits and controls power through use of a pressurized fluid within an
enclosed circuit.
2. Define Viscosity and bulk modulus of hydraulic fluid .(May June 06)
A measure of the internal friction or the resistance to fluid flow. actuator. Bulk modulus is the
measure of compressibility of a fluid .It is the reciprocal of compressibility.
3. Explain the term friction factor. (Nov Dec 06)
Friction factor is a dimensionless number required to calculate the energy losses due to
friction in the pipe. For laminar flow the friction factor f is function of Reynolds number only where as for turbulent flow f is a function of Reynolds number as well as the relative roughness of the pipe.
4. Name any four desirable characteristics of hydraulic pumps.(Apr May 05) (i)Pumps should provide safe and maximum system working pressure
(ii)They should have high volumetric and overall efficiency.
(iii) They should be compact and also have higher power to weight ratio. (iv) They should posses the variable displacement control
5. Name any four draw backs of Fluid Power System. (Apr May 05)
(i)Hydraulics fluid leakage poses many problems to the operation as well as operators.
(ii)Flammable hydraulic fluids may pose fire hazards thus limiting the upper level of working temperature.
(iii) Hydraulics elements require special treatments to protect them against rust, corrosion, dirt, etc., otherwise the contaminated elements may impair the system operation
6. How to classify direction control valves? (Nov Dec 05) (i) Two wave valves
(ii) Three wave valves
(iii) Four wave valves
7. Differentiate pressure compensated and non-pressure compensated pumps. (Nov/Dec11)
In pressure compensated pump, the pump flow can be made to zero. Such a pump has its own
protection against excessive pressure build up. Also there is no power waste and reduced fluid heating. Whereas non pressure compensated pumps are hydraulically unbalanced and cause undesirable side load on the bearings of the pump.
8. Write about positive displacement pumps? (Apr May 05) ( Nov Dec 12)
Positive displacement pumps have the internal working elements which make a very , close
fit together so that there is very little leakage (or) slippage between them. This type of pumps ejects a fixed quantity of liquid into the hydraulic system per revolution of the' pump shaft.
9. What is a sequencing circuit? (Nov Dec 06)
Process control pneumatics is also called as sequencing. It means performing number of
actions one after another which follows each other in a simple order or with an order determined by sensors.
10. What is pneumatic direction control valve? (Nov Dec 05)
Pneumatic direction control valve is used to control the direction of air path. These Valves
have generally two, three, four (or) five ports: These ports are designated as P: Compressor line port R: Exhaust port (T is case of hydraulics) A, B: Working ports connected to actuator.
11. Differentiate between oil hydraulics and pneumatics. (Nov Dec 10) (Nov Dec12)
i) Stability of the hydraulic system is high, since oil is almost incompressible and pressure level is considerably high. But the stability of the pneumatic system is low, since air is compressible.
ii)Energy cost of hydraulic system is medium. But Energy cost of the pneumatic system is
high.
iii)In Hydraulic system, Controllable, high force. But in pneumatic system, Controllable, medium force.
UNIT-II HYDRAULIC SYSTEM AND COMPONENTS
1. What is the use of regenerative circuit? (Nov Dec 05) (NovDec12)
Regenerative circuit is used to increase the speed of extension stroke of the double acting hydraulic cylinder
2. What do you mean by non – positive displacement pump? (Nov Dec 06)
In non-positive displacement pumps, the fluid flow is achieved using the inertia of the fluid in
motion. Since these pumps cannot withstand high pressures, they are used only for transporting from one place to the another. For the same reason, they are not preferred in the fluid power
industries.
3. Why is the cylinder cushion? What is its purpose? (Nov Dec 06)
When the pressurized fluid is allowed to travel at the same speed till the end of stroke, it will
hit the end cap with a great impact. To avoid this impact, the piston needs to decelerate at the end of the travel. The arrangement made at the end caps to achieve the same is called cylinder
cushion.
4. State the need for synchronization of hydraulic cylinders. (Apr May 05)
There are many industrial applications which require nearly perfect synchronization of
movement of two or more cylinders in order to complete some phase of operation.Synchronization is required where exact movement is required at both ends of a span,
such as on rolling equipment, power shears, power brakes, large presses, etc.
5. What is a hydraulic fuse?(Apr May 05)
A hydraulic fuse, analogous to an electric fuse, prevents hydraulic pressure from exceeding an
allowable value in order to protect circuit components from damage.
6. What is the difference between pilot operated and direct operated pressure relief valve?(May June 06)
Direct operated pressure relief valves are used where the flow rate and the system pressure are
reasonably smaller or there is not much variation in system pressure or flow rate. Whereas for a larger flow rate and higher pressure, pilot operated relief valves are used. The great advantages of pilot valve is that it can be kept spatially separated from the main valve.
7. What is meter-out circuit ?what are its applications? (Nov Dec 06)
In meter –out circuit ,the flow control valve is placed in the return line limiting the flow rate of
oil from cylinder. Even at no load ,the actuator is subjected to maximum pressure. Also as the cylinder is fed with the entire pump pressure ,pressure there is possibility of higher friction loss.
8. Define pressure override in pressure control valves. (Nov Dec 06)
The pressure at which the valves that opens is called the cracking pressure. The cracking and
closing pressure of the control valve is not same. Moreover in most cases ,the valve poppet
cracks at a pressure lower than the adjusted pressure but the valve closes at a lower pressure than at which it cracks.
9. Define FRL unit? (Nov Dec 05)/ (Nov/Dec11)
Air is not clean and hence contamination may result in pneumatic circuit. Also, due to time
fluctuations, the receiver air pressure does not remain constant. Also, some parts of the pneumatic system have to be lubricated for proper maintenance. For cleaning the air, regulating the pressure of air and lubricating pneumatic parts, three units 'Filter - Pressure Regulator - Lubricator' (Trio unit) are put together and this combined unit - Trio unit - is called FRL unit.
10. What is air receiver? (Apr May 06)
Air receiver is a large cylindrical vessel used to store high pressure air from the compressor. Large surface area of the receiver dissipates the heat of compression (heat in the compressed air) to the surrounding atmosphere. It will have safety relief valve, pressure indicator and
temperature switches.
11. Name four types of hydraulic cylinder mountings.
i) Rectangular flange mounting.
ii) Square flange Mounting. iii) Extended tie rod end.
iv) Double rod end.
12. Differentiate between single acting and double acting compressors. (Apr May 06)
In a single acting compressor, the compression takes place 011 one side of the piston for each
revolution of crank shaft. . In a double acting cylinder, compression takes place on both faces of the piston giving two compression strokes for each revolution of the crankshaft.
UNIT III DESIGN OF HYDRAULIC CIRCUITS
1. What is the function of accumulator? (Nov Dec 05)
Accumulator is used as an auxiliary power source. It is a device which stores the potential
energy of the fluid. The stored potential energy in the accumulator acts as a quick secondary source of power and does useful work as required by the system.
2. What are the most common applications of accumulators in hydraulic system?
1. Accumulator is used as an auxiliary power source 2.Accumulator is used as a compensator for an internal (or) external leakage. 3. Accumulator is used as an emergency power source4. Accumulator is used as a hydraulic shock absorber.
3. What are the functions of reservoir?(Apr May 05)
Reservoirs not only provide a storage facility for the liquid but can also serve to separate
entrained air, remove contaminants and dissipate heat from the liquid.
4. What is two way valves? (Apr May 05)
Two way valves contain two ports. Two way valves are generally used as check and shut- off
valves.
5. How do select hydraulic pipes for a hydraulic system? (Nov Dec 05) / Nov Dec
(2011)
1.system pressure 2.pressure pulses 3.velocity of fluid flow 4.fluid compatibility 5.enviromental
conditions.
6. What is meter-in circuit? what are its applications?( Nov Dec12)
In meter in circuit , the flow control valve is placed in the line leading to the inlet port of the
cylinder. There will be a drop in oil pressure fed to the cylinder due to throttling effect of the flow control valve. Hence for a low pressure, systems, meter in circuit is not preferred.
7. Distinguish between the pressure reducing valve and pressure relief by giving the graphical symbols. (May June 06)
pressure reducing valve maintains a prescribed reduced pressure at its outlet regardless of the
valve inlet pressure. But the pressure relief valve limits the maximum pressure that can be applied to the part of the system to which it is connected.
8. Differentiate between pressure control valve and pressure relief valve. (Nov Dec 06) Pressure control valve controls the fluid pressure in a system whereas pressure relief valve protects a system from excessive fluid pressure over and above the design pressure limit.
9. Write the functions of solenoid valve. (Nov Dec 06)
A solenoid is an electromagnetic mechanical transducer that converts an electrical signal into a mechanical output force. It provides a push or pull force to remotely operate fluid power valves.
10. State the role of PLC in fluid power industry. (Nov Dec 06)
PLC is designed as a replacement for hard-wired electro mechanical relays to control fluid
power systems.
11. What is PLC? (Apr May 05) (Nov Dec12)
PLC is a digital electronic device that uses a programmable memory to store instructions such
as logic, sequencing, timing counting and arithmetic to control machine or process.
12. Differentiate between single acting and double acting compressors. (Apr May 06)
In a single acting compressor, the compression takes place 011 one side of the piston for each
revolution of crank shaft. . In a double acting cylinder, compression takes place on both faces of
the piston giving two compression strokes for each revolution of the crankshaft.
13. How piston pumps are classified? (Nov Dec 06)
1. Radial piston pump 2. Piston pump with stationary cam and rotating block 3. Axial pump
with swash plate 4. Bent axis pump
14. What is an Electrical Relay? Nov Dec (2011)
Electric relay is a switch whose contacts open or close when its coil is energized. Relays are
used for energizing and de-energizing solenoids.
15. What is the purpose of an intensifier? What is gained and what is lost in an intensifier? Nov Dec (2011)
A hydraulic intensifier is a device which converts a large volume, low pressure fluid
supply in to a proportionately small- volume, high pressure fluid outlet.
UNIT-IV PNEUMATIC SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS
1. What is ladder diagram? (Nov Dec 05) / Nov Dec (2011)
The ladder diagram is a representation of hardware connections between switches, relays,
solenoids, etc. The left leg of the ladder connected to the power and right to the ground.
2. What is the use of bleed-off circuit? (Apr May 05) ( Nov Dec12)
Bleed off circuit is used to .control the flow of fluid in both directions of flow (or) on a specific
line and limits speed in only one direction of the cylinder travel.
3. What is air-oil intensifier ? (Nov Dec 05)
Air over oil intensifier is used for driving a cylinder over a large at a low pressure and then over
a small distance at high pressure.
4. What is the need of lubricator unit in the pneumatic system? (Nov Dec 06)
The function of the lubricator unit is to add a controlled amount of oil with air to ensure proper
lubrication of internal moving parts of pneumatic components.
151. Name the various types of filters used in the pneumatic system? (Nov Dec 06)
1. Dry filter(with replaceable cartridges)
2. wet filter (where the incoming air is bubbled through an oil bath then passed through a wire mesh filter)
5. What is twin pressure valve? (Nov Dec 06)
Twin pressure valve, like counter balance valve, permits free flow in one direction and
restricted flow in the opposite direction.
6. What is meant by interlock contacts? (Apr May 06)
Interlock contacts are nothing but relay contacts. Relay are switches whose contacts open or
close when their corresponding coils are energized. The relay contacts provide interlock capability, which prevents the accidental energizing of two solenoids at the opposite ends of a valve spool. This safety feature can prevent the burn out of one or both of these solenoids.
7. What is Quick Exhaust Valve? Where are the these valves installed? (Nov Dec
06)/(Nov-Dec10.)
If the flow rate in the system is constant, then the total energy in the system will also be
constant irrespective of the variation in the cross section of the fluid passages.
8. Explain non-separator type gas loaded accumulator? (Nov Dec 05)
In this type, the gas is filled at the top and the heavy oil at the bottom of the shell. There is no separator between the gas and oil and thus the pressurized gas pushes the oil directly.
UNIT-V DESIGN OF PNEUMATIC CIRCUITS
1. What is a microprocessor?(May June 06)
A microprocessor is a multipurpose, programmable, clock driven, register – based
electronic device that reads binary instructions from a storage device called memory, accepts binary data as input and processes data according to those instructions, and
provides results as output.
2. Mention any two roles of pneumatic systems in low cost automation. (Apr May 05)
Pneumatic systems are popularly used for low cost automation (LCA)applications due to their
low cost ,ease of fabrication and safe operation.
3. What do you understand by single sequencing? (Apr May 05)
By sequencing a number of cylinders various machining and tooling operation may easily be
obtained in a machine .by using sequencing cylinders can be actuated one another in sequence like clamping ,unclamping and drilling.
4. What is power pack? (Nov Dec 05)
Power pack consists of a pump, electric motor ,reservoir and associated valving assembled to
one unit to supply pressurized fluid. They are relatively small in size and provide functions of pressure ,direction and flow control within the basic package.
5. How do microprocessor differ from PLCs? (Nov Dec 05)
1.PLCs are rugged and designed to withstand vibrations, temperature ,humidity and noise
2.The interfacing for inputs and outputs is inside the controller.
3.They are easily programmed and have an easily understood programming language.
6. What is servo valve? How does it work? (Nov Dec 06)
Servo valves are nothing but DC valves having infinitely variable positioning capability. A servo system is one in which the comparatively large amount of power is controlled by small impulses or command signals and any error are corrected by feedback signals.
7. Define condo effect. (Nov Dec 06)/ Nov Dec (2011)
When a stream of fluid meets other stream ,the effect is to change its direction of flow and
effect is the fluid sticks to the wall.
8. How do you rate a compressor ? (Nov Dec 06)
(i)outlet pressure of air that can be delivered by the compressor
(ii)capacity or volume of air that can be delivered by the compressor
(iii)compressor configuration and cylinder geometry
9. What are the important components of a hydraulic power pack? (Nov Dec 06) Hydraulic power pack consists of the pump ,drive motor, mechanical couplings, oil reservoir, strainers, filters, coolers, etc
10. What is Time delay circuit? (Nov Dec 05) (Nov Dec12)
In certain applications, the impulse to the main direction control valve may have to be delayed to pre-determined time for different operational reasons. A pneumatic time delay valve may be
used in such cases. A pneumatic circuit using this time delay valve is known as time delay circuit.
11. What is proportional valve? How it is different from a solenoid valve? Proportional valves, Similar to servo valves, use a variable force direct current solenoid to control the output from the main spool. Therefore the output is directly proportional to the input signal.
12. Define the term fluidics. Nov Dec (2011)
Fluidics is the technology that utilizes fluid flow phenomena in components and circuits to
perform a wide variety of control functions.
ME2304 – ENGINEERING METROLOGY and MEASUREMENTS Two Marks Questions With Answers 2015
Anna University, Chennai
DHANALAKSHMI SRINIVASAN INSTITUTE OF RESEARCH AND TECHNOLOGY –SIRUVACHUR
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING FIFTH SEMESTER
ME2304 – ENGINEERING METROLOGY and MEASUREMENTS
TWO MARK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UNIT I- CONCEPT OF MEASUREMENT
1. What is Range of measurement?:
The physical variables that are measured between two values. One is the higher calibration value
H , and the other is Lower value L, The difference between H, and L, is called range.
2. . What is Resolution:
The minimum value of the input signal is required to cause an appreciable change in the output known as resolution.
3. Differentiate between sensitivity and range with suitable example. Example: A Instrument have a scale reading of 0.01mm to 100mm.
Here, the sensitivity of the instrument is 0.0lmm i.e. the minimum value in the scale by which the instrument can read.
The range is 0.01 to 100mm i.e. the minimum to maximum value by which the instrument can read.
4. Deflne system error and correction.,
Error: The deviation between the results of measured value to the actual value. Correction: The numerical value which should be added to the measured value to get the correct result.
5. Define: Measured.
Measured is the physical quantity or property like length, diameter, and angle to be measured.
6. Define: Deterministic Metrology.
The metrology in which part measurement is replaced by process measurement. The new techniques such as 3D error compensation by CNC systems are applied.
7.Define over damped and under damped system
Over damped - The final indication of measurement ii approached exponentially from one side. Under damped - The pointer approach the position corresponding to final reading and makes a number of oscillations around it.
8.Give any four methods of measurement
1. Direct method.
2. Indirect method.
3. Comparison method.
4. Coincidence method.
9. Give classification of measuring instruments.
1. Angle measuring Instruments.
2. Length measuring Instruments.
3. Instruments for surface finish.
4. Instruments for deviations.
10 .Define True size:
True size is Theoretical size of a dimension
11. Define Actual size
Actual size = Size obtained through measurement with permissible error.
12. What is Hysteresis?
All the energy put into the stressed component when loaded is not recovered upon unloading. So, the output of measurement partially depends on input called hoteresis.
13. Differentiate accuracy and Uncertainty with example.
Accuracy - Closeness to the true value.
Example: Measuring accuracy is ± 0.02mm for diameter 25mm. Here the measurement true values lie between 24.98 to25.02 mm Uncertanity about the true value = ± 0.02mm
14.Define Span:
The algebraic difference between higher calibration values to lower calibration value. Example: In a measurement of temperature higher value is 200*C and lower value is 1500C means span = 200 - 150 = 50'C
15 Differentiate between precision and accuracy.
Accuracy - The maximum amount by which the result differ from true value.
Precision - Degree of repetitiveness. If an instrument is not precise it will give different results for the same dimension for the repeated readings.
16. What is Scale interval:
It is the difference between two successive scale marks in units.
17.What is Response time:
The time at which the instrument begins its response for a change measured quantity.
18. Define Repeatability:
The ability of the measuring instrument to repeat the same results g the act measurements for the same quantity is known as atability.
19. Explain the term magniftication:
It means the magnitude of output signal of measuring instrument times increases to make it more readable.
20. Classify the Absolute error.
The absolute error is classified into 1. True absolute error 2. Apparent absolute error
21. What is Relative error.
Relative error is defined as the results of the absolute error and the, value of comparison used for calculation of that absolute error. The comparison may be true value or conventional true value
or arithmetic rnean for series of measurement.
22. Classify the errors
The errors can be classified into
1. Static errors - Reading errors
- Characteristic errors,
- Environmental errors
2. Loading errors 3. Dynamic error
23. What is the basic Principle of measurement?
It is the physical phenomenon utilized in the measurement. If energy kind of quantity measured, there must be a unit to measure it. So this will give the quantity to be measured in number of that unit.
24. What are the applications of Legal metrology?
1. Industrial MeasufWen~
2. Commercial transactions
3. Public health and human safety ensuring.
24. What is the need of inspection?
To determine the fitness of new made materials, products or component part and to compare the
Materials, products to the established standard.
25. What are the important elements of measurments? The important elements of a measurement is
I . Measurand 2. Reference 3. Comparator
26. What is LEGAL METROLOGY?
Legal metrology is part of Metrology and it is directed by a National Organization which is called "Notional service of Legal Metrology". The main objective is to, maintain uniformity of measurement in a particular country.
UNIT II – LINEAR AND ANGULAR MEASURMENTS
27.What are the considerations while manufactureing the slip gauges?
The following additional operations are carried out to obtain the necessary qualities in slip gauges
during manufacture.
1. First the approximate size of slip gauges is done by preliminary operations.
2. The blocks are hardened and wear resistant by a special heat treatment process.
3. To stabilize the whole life of blocks, seasoning process is done.
4. The approximate required dimension is done by a final grinding process.
28. How do you calibrate the slip gauges? Comparators are used to calibrate the slip gauges.
29. List the various linear measurements? (i) Length (ii) Heights and (iii) Thick fiess
30.What are the various types of linear measuring instruments?
The various devices used for measuring the linear measurements are i.Vernier calipers ii. Micrometers iii. Slip gauge or gauge blocks iv.
Comparator
31.List out any four angular measuring instrument used in metrology
(i) Angle gauges (ii) Divided scales (iii) Sine bar with slip gauges (iv) Autocollimator (v) Angle dekkor
32.What is comparators?
Comparators are one form of linear measurement device which is quick and more convenient for checking large number of identical dimensions.
33.Classify the comparator according to the principles usedfor obtaining magnification.
The common types are: (i) Mechanical comparators. (ii) Electrical comparators. (iii) Optical comparators. (iv) Pneumatic comparators.
34. How the mechanical comparator works?
The method of magnifying small movement of the indicator in all mechanical comparators are effected by means of levers, gear trains or a combination of these elements.
35. State the best example of a mechanical comparator.
A dial indicator or dial gauge is used as a mechanical comparator.
36. Define least count and mention the least count of a mechanical comparator.
Least count. - The least value that can be measured by using any measuring instrument known as least count. Least count of a mechanical comparator is 0.0 1 mm
37. How the mechanical comparator is used? State with any one example.
Let us assume that the required height of the component I s 32.5mm. Initially, this height is built up with slip gauges. The slip gauge blocks are placed under the stem of the dial gauge. The pointer in the dial gauge is adjusted to zero. The slip gauges are removed- Now, the component to be checked is introduced under the stem of the dial gauge. If there is any deviation in the height of the
component, it will be indicated by the pointer.
38. State any four advantages of reed type mechanical comparator. (i) It is usually robust, compact and easy to handle.
(ii) There is no external supply such as electricity, air required.
(iii) It has very simple mechanism and is cheaper when compared to other types. (iv) It is suitable for ordinary workshop and also easily portable.
39. Mention any two disadvantages of reed type mechanical comparator.
(i) Accuracv of the comparator mainly depends on the accuracy of the rack and pinion arrangement. Any slackness will reduce accuracy.
(ii) It has more moving parts and hence friction is more and accuracy is less.
40. What are the major types of on electrical comparator?
An electrical comparator consists of the following three major parts such as
(i) Transducer (ii) Display device as meter (iii) Amplifier
41. On what basis the transducer works?
An iron armature is provided in between two coils held by a leaf spring at one end. The other end is supported against a plunger. The two coils act as two arms of an A.C. wheat stone bridge circuit.
42. How is the accuracy of an electrical comparator checked?
To check the accuracy of a given specimen or work, first a standard specimen is placed under the plunger. After this, the resistance of wheat stone bridge is adjusted that the scale reading shows zero.
Then the specimen is removed. Now, the work is introduced under the plunger.
43. State the working principle of an electronic comparator.
In electronic comparator, transducer induction or the principle of application of frequency modulation or radio oscillation is followed.
44. Mention the important parts of an electronic comparator.
(i) Transducer (ii) Oscillator (iii) Amplifier(iv) Demodulator (v) Meter
45. Classify pneumatic comparators.
(i) Flow or Velocity type. (ii) Back pressure type
46. What are the advantages of electrical and electronic comparator?
(i) It has less number of moving parts. (ii) Magnification obtained is very high.
(iii) Two or more magnifications are provided in the same instrument to use various ranges.
(iv) The pointer is made very light so that it 'IS more sensitive to vibration.
47. What are the disadvantages of electrical and electronic comparator? (i) External agency is required to metre for actuation.
(ii) Variation of voltage or frequency may affect the accuracy of output. (iii) Due to heating coils, the accuracy decreases.
(iv) It is more expensive than mechanical comparator.
48. List the various parts of an optical comparator
The optical comparator consists of the following parts such as
(i) Pivoted lever. (ii) Objective lens (iii) Scale
(iv) Plunger (v) Table and (vi) Base.
48. What are the advantages of pneumatic comparator?
(i) The wear of measuring heads is avoided due to absence of direct contact. (ii) Friction is less due to less number of moving parts.
(iii)Work piece is cleaned by supplying of all during the measurement. (iv)High magnification is possible.
(v) There is no interference of measuring head and indicating device because the measuring head is kept away from the indicating device.
(vi)lt is a suitable method to check ovalty and taperness of circular bore.
UNIT 3 FORM MEASUREMENT
49. Name the various types of pitch errors found in screw?
(i) Progressive error (ii) Drunken error (iii) Periodic error (iv) Irregular errors.
50. Name the various methods of measuring the minor diameter of the thread. (i) Using taper parallels. (ii) Using rollers and slip gauges.
51.Name the various methods used for measuring the major diameter
(i) Ordinary micrometer (ii) Bench micro meter
52. Name the various methods for measuring effective diameter.
(i) One wire method (ii) Two wire method (iii) Three wire method
53. Name the various methods for measuring pitch diameter.
(i) Pitch measuring machine (ii) Tool maker ic (iii) Screw pitch gauge.
54. Name the two corrections are to be applied in the measurement of effective diameter. (i)rake corrections (ii) Compression correction,
55. What is best size of wire?
Best size of wire is a wire of such diameter that it makes contact with the flanks of the thread on the pitch line.
56. Define. Drunken thread
This is one, having erratic pitch, in which the advance Of the helix is irregular in one complete revolution of thread.
57. What is the effect of flank angle error?
Errors in the flank cause a virtual increase in the effective diameter of a bolt and decrease in that, of nut.
58. What are the applications of toolmaker's microscope?
(i) Linear measurement (ii) Measurement of pitch of the screw (iii) Measurement'of thread angle.
59. Define: Periodic error.
The periodic error repeats itself at equal intervals along the thread.
60. What are the commonly used forms of gear teeth? (1) Involute (ii) Cycloidal
61. what are the types of gears?
(i) Spur (ii) Helical (iii) Bevel (iv) Worth and Worm wheel (v) Rack and pinion.
62. Define: Module
Module= pitch circle diameter/ number of teeth
63. Define: Lead angle
It is the angle between the tangent to the helix and plane perpendicular to the axis of cylinder.
64. What are the various methods used for measuring the gear tooth thickness?
(i) Gear tooth vernier (ii) Constant chord method (iii) Base tangent method (iv) Measurement over pins.
65. Name four gear errors.
(i) Pitch error (iii) Alignment error (ii) Composite error (iv) Thickness error
66. Name the method used for checking the pitch of the gear. (i) Step by step method. (ii) Direct angular measurement.
67. What are the direct angular measurements methods?
1. Profile checking: a) Optical projection method b) Involute measuring method.
2. Thickness measurement: a) Chordarl thickness method b) Constance chord method.
68. Define : constant chord
Constant chord is the chord joining those points, or opposite Aaces of the tooth.
69. Give the formula for measuring radius of circle.
R = (I - d)2/ 8d
Where, R=Radius of the job 1 = Distance between the balls d = Diameter of pins.
70. What are the two methods used in measuring radius of concave surface. a) Edges are well defined. b) Edges are rounded up.
71. What are the factors affecting surface roughness?
a) Vibrations b) Material of the work piece c) Tool d) Machining type
72. What are the methods used for evaluating the surface finish?
a) Peak to valley height method. b)The average roughness method. c) Form factor method.
73. Define fullness and emptiness in form factor.
Degree of fullness (K)= area of metal /Area of enveloping rectangle
Degree of emptiness = 1 - K
74 What are the methods used for measuring surface roughness?
a) Inspection by comparison b) Direct instrument measurements.
75. What are the stylus probe instruments?
a) Profilo meter b) Taylor Hobson Talysurf c) Tomlinson surface meter
76. Define: Straightness of a line in two planes.
A line is said to be straight over a given length, of the variation of the distance of its points from two planes perpendicular to each other and parallel to the direction of a line remaining within the specified tolerance limits.
77. Define: Roundness. Name the four measurement of roundness.
It is a surface of revolution where all the surfaces intersected 'by any plane perpendicular to a common axis in case of, cylinder and cone. a. Heart square circle. b. Minimum radial separation circle. c. Maximum inscribed circle. d. Minimum circumscribed circle.
78. Name the devices used for measurement of roundness.
1. Diametral 2. Circumferential confining gauge. 3. Rotating on center.
4. V-Block 5. Three point probe 6. Accurate spindle.
79. Define : lay
Lay: -Direction of the 'predominate surface pattern'
80. What is runout?
Run out. -Total range of reading of a fixed indicate Or with the contact points applied to a
Surface
rotated, without axial movement, about 3 fixed axis.
UNIT 4- LASER AND ADVANCES IN METROLOGY
81 What is interferometer?
Interferometer is optical instruments used for measuring flatness and determining the lengths of slip gauges by direct reference to the wavelength of light.
82 Name the different types of interferometer?
1) NPL flatness interferometer 2)Michelson interferometer
3) Laser interferometer 4) Zesis gauge block interferometer.
83 Name the common source of light used for interferometer
a. Mercury 198 b.Cad minus c.Krypton 86 d. Helium e. Hydrogen
84 What is crest and trough?
The light is a form of energy being propagated by electromagnetic waves, which is a sine curve. The high point of the wave is called crust and the low Point is called is trough.
85. What is wavelength?
The distance between two crust or two rough is called the wavelength
86. What is meant by alignment test on machine tools?
The alignment test is carried out to check the grade of manufacturing accuracy of the machine tool.
87. List the various geometrical checks made on machine tools.
a. Straightness of guide ways and slide ways of machine tool. b. Flatness of machine tables and slide ways.
c. Parallelism, equidistance and alignment of the slide ways. d. True running and alignment of shaft and spindle.
e. The pitch error or lead of lead screw. f. Pitch errors of gears.
88. Distinguish between geometrical test and practical test on a machine tool
The alignment test is carried out to check the grade of manufacturing accuracy of the machine tool. Performance test consist of checking the accuracy of the finished component. Alignment test
consist of checking the relationship between various machine elements when the machine tool is idle.
Performance test consists of preparing the actual test jobs on the machine and checking the accuracy
of the jobs produced.
89. What are the main spindle errors?
a) Out of round.b) Eccentricity c) Radial throw of an axis. d) Run out e) Periodical axial slip
90. Write the various tests conducted on any machine tools
1.Test for level of installation of machine tool in horizontal and vertical planes.
2.Test for flatness of machine bed and for straightness and parallelism of bed ways on bearing surface.
3.Test for perpendicularity of guide ways to other guide ways.
4.Test for true running of the main spindle and its axialmovements.
91. Why the laser is used in alignment testing?
The alignment tests can be carried out over greater distances and to a greater degree of accuracy using laser equipment. Laser equipment produces real straight line, whereas an alignment telescope
provides a, imaginary line that cannot be seen in space.
92. Classify the machine tool test.
It can be classified into 1. Static tests 2. Dynamic tests.
93. What are the different types of geometrical tests conducted on machine tools?
1. Straightness. , 2. Flatness. ,3. Parallelism, equi-distance and coincidence.
94. What is the principle of laser.
The photon emitted during stimulated emission has the same energy, phase and frequency as the incident photon.This principle states that the photon comes in contact with another atom or molecule in the higher energy level E2 then it will cause the atom to return to ground state energy level E, by releasing another photon.The sequence of triggered identical photon from stimulated at In is known as stimulated emission. This multiplication of photon through stimulated emission' leads to coherent, powerful,monochromatic, collimated beam of light emission. This light emission is called laser.
95.What is CMM?
It is a three dimensional measurements for various components. These machines have precise movement is x,y,z coordinates which can be easily controlled and measured. Each slide in three directions is equipped with a precision linear measurment transducer which gives digital display and
senses positive and negative direction.
96. Define axial length measuring accuracy
it is defined as difference between the reference length of gauges aligned with a machine axis and the corresponding measurement results from the machine.
97. Write the types of coordinate measuring machines
1. Bridge type
2. Horizontal bore mill
3. Vertical bore mill
4. Spherical coordinate measuring machine
98. Explain CNC, CMM briefly.
A computer numerical control system can be used with CN4M to do calculations while measuring complex parts. Error can be stored in memory while doing calculations. For automatic calibration of probe, determination of co-ordinate system, calculation, evaluation and recording etc., special software's are incorporated.
99.Write some features of CMM software.
Measurement of diameter, center distance can be measured as follows:
1. Measurement of plane and spatial curves
2. Minimize CNC programme.]
3. Data communications.
4. Digital input and output command
5. Interface to CAD software
100. Define machine vision.
Machine vision can be defined as a means of simulating the image recognition and analysis capabilities of the
Human system with electronic and electromechanical techniques.
101. What are the four basic types of machine, vision system? (i) Image formation.
(ii) Processing of image.
( iii) Analyzing the image
(iv) Interpretation of image.
102. Write the advantages of machine vision system. (i) Reduction of tooling and fixture cash.
(ii) Elimination of need for precise part location. (iii) Integrated automation of dimensional verification (iv)Defect detection.
103. Define grayscale analysis.
In these techniques, discrete areas or windows are formed around only the portions of the image to be inspected. For determining if brackets are present, high intensity lighting is positioned. This type of discrete area analysis is a powerful tool and can be used for inspection of absence, correct part assembly, orientation, part, integrity, etc.
104 Mention the advantages of CMM. (i) The inspection rate is increased.
(ii) Accuracy is reduced.
(iii) Operator's error can be minimized. Skill of the operator is reduced.
(iv) Reduction in calculating, recording and set up time. (iv) No need of GO/NOGO gauges.
(vi) Reduction of scrap and good part rejection.
105. Mention the disadvantages of CMM.
(i) The table and probe may not be in perfect alignment. (ii) The stylus may have run out.
(iii)The stylus moving in z-axis may have some perpendicularity errors. (iv)Styius while moving in x and y direction may not be square to each other. (v) There may be errors in digital system.
106. Mention the application of CMM.
(i)CMM's to find application in automobile. Machine to, electronics, space and many other large companies.
(ii) These are best suited for the test and inspection Of test equipment, gauges and tools.
(iii)For aircraft and space vehicles of hundred Percent inspections is carried out by using CMM. (iv)CMM can be used for determining dimensional accuracy of the component.
(v) CMM can also be used for sorting tasks to achieve optimum pacing of components within tolerance limits.
107. Describe the features of a flexible inspection system.
(i) A powerful computer serves as a real tirne processor to handle part dimensional data and as a multi 'programming system to perform such tasks as manufacturing p I rocess control.
(ii) The terminal provides interactive communication with personnel Computer where the programmes are stored. (iii) Input devices microprocessor based gauges and other inspection devices are used in CMM.
108. Write brief note about (i) Co-ordinate measuring machine equipped with a laser probe (ii) Virtual measuring system
(i) A CMM equipped with a laser probe can convert a part of physical model into a digitize file. Such a file can be compared with other file and can be manipulated by designers to improve quality.
Manufactures can verify that each finished part measures exactly as designed.
(ii) Virtual measuring System uses a rnicroscope system to' examine an electronic replica of the Surface texture of part. Such a system is non-contact 3-1) Surface measurement system and provide image of the surface. The images are processed on a PC using vertical scanning interferornetry and vision analysis software to produce 2D-profile, 3-D plots and counter plots.It generates statistics for average roughness, average profile height, reduced peak height, cares roughness depth, reduced valley depth and a number of other parameters. It also determines the depth, spacing and angle of groove in a hared surface optical probe of a cylinder bore can be rotated 360 degrees and moved vertically along the cylinder wall.
109. Explain briefly the three important fields of machine vision system
Inspection: ]t is the ability of an automated vision system to recognize well-defined pattern and if these pattern match these stored in the system makes machine vision ideal for inspection of raw materials, parts, assemblies etc.Part identification: It is the ability of part recognition provides positive identifications of an object for decision-making purposes.Guidance and Control. Machine vision systems are used to provide sensor feedback for real time guidance.
UNIT 5 – MEASUREMENT OF POWER, FLOW AND TEMPERATURE RELATED PROPERTIES
110. What are load cells?
Are devices for the measurement of force through indirect methods?
111. Give the principle of hot wire anemometer
When a fluid flows over a heated surface heat is transferred from the surface and so the temperature reduces. The
rate of reduction of temperature is related to flow rate.
112. State any four inferential type of flow meters
Venturi meter, orificemeter, rotameter, pitot tube.
113 What is the principle involved in fluid expansion thermometer? Change in pressure in the bulb is taken as an indication of the temperature.
114. Mention the principle involved in bimetallic strip. Is based on change in dimension
115 What is thermocouple?
When two metals are joined together it will create an emf and it is primarily a function of the junction temperature.
116 What is a Kentometer?
It is a device for measurement of absolute pressure.
117 What is thermopile?
When thermocouples are connected in series it is called thermopile
ME2302 DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY Questions Bank 2015
Anna University, Chennai
DHANALAKSHMI SRINIVASAN INSTITUTE OF RESEACH AND TECHNOLOGY
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
QUESTION BANK
ME2302 DYNAMICS OF MACHINERY III YEAR/ V SEMESTER
UNIT-I (FORCE ANALYSIS)
| PART-B (FORCE ANALYSIS) | (16 marks) | |
| 1. For reciprocating engine, derive the expression for (i)Velocity and acceleration of the piston (ii)Angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod | (16) |
2. In a reciprocating engine mechanism, if the crank and connecting rod are 300mm and 1m long respectively and the crank rotates at a constant speed of 200r.p.m.Determine analytically,
1. The crank angle at which the maximum velocity occurs and
2. Maximum velocity of piston.
3. Derive the relevant equations. (16)
3. (i)Deduce the expression for the inertia force in the reciprocating force neglecting the weight
of the connecting rod. (8)
(ii)A vertical petrol engine with cylinder of 150mm diameter and 200mm strokes has a connecting rod of
350mm
long. The mass is 1.6kg and the engine speed is 1800 rpm. On the expansion stroke with crank angle 30˚
fromTDC, the gas pressure is 750KPa.Determine the net thrust on the piston. (8)
4. (i)Define coefficient of fluctuation of speed and coefficient of fluctuation of energy. (4)
(ii)The radius of gyration of a fly wheel is 1meter and fluctuation of speed is not to exceed 1% of the mean speed of the flywheel. If the mass of the flywheel is 3340kg and the steam develops 150KW at 135rpm, then find,
1.Maximum fluctuation of energy 2. Coefficient of fluctuation of energy (12)
5. The length of crank and connecting rod of a horizontal reciprocating engine are 100mm and 500mm respectively. The crank is rotating at 400rpm.When the crank has turned 30˚ from the IDC, find analytically
1.Velocity of piston
2. Acceleration of piston
3. Angular velocity of connecting rod
4. Angular acceleration of connecting rod. (16)
6. The length and connecting rod of a horizontal reciprocating engine are 200mm and 1meter respectively. The crank is rotating at 400rpm.When the crank has turned 30˚ from the inner dead center, the difference of pressure between cover end and piston rod is 0.4 N/mm2. If the mass of the reciprocating parts is 100Kg and a cylinder bore is 0.4meters.Calculate
(i)Inertia force (ii) Force on piston (iii) Piston effort (iv) Thrust on the side of the cylinder walls (v) Thrust
in the connecting rod (vi)Crank effort. (16)
7. A horizontal gas engine running at 210rpm has a bore of 220mm and a stroke of 440mm. T he connecting rod is 924mm long the reciprocating parts weight 20kg.When the crank has turned through an angle of 30˚ from IDC, the gas pressure on the cover and the crank sides are 500KN/m2 and 60KN/m2 respectively. Diameter of the piston rod is 40mm.Determine,
1. Turning moment on the crank shaft
2.Thrust on bearing
3. Acceleration of the flywheel which has a mass of 8kg and radius of gyration of 600mm while the power
of the engine is 22KW.
(16)
8. A single cylinder vertical engine has a bore of 300mm and a stroke of 400mm.The connecting rod is 1000mm long. The mass of the reciprocating parts is 140kg.On the expansion stroke with the crank at 30˚from the top dead center, the gas pressure is 0.7MPa.If the runs at 250rpm, determine;
1. Net force acting on the piston 2.resultant load on the gudgeon pin
3. Thrust on cylinder walls
4. The speed above which other things remaining same, gudgeon pin loads would be reversed in
direction. (16)
9. A vertical double acting steam engine has a cylinder 300mm diameter and 450mm stroke and runs at
200rpm.The reciprocating parts has a mass of 225kg and the piston rod is 50mm diameter. The connecting rod is 1.2m long. When the crank has turned 125˚ from IDC the steam pressure above the piston is 30KN/m2.calculate,
(i)Crank-pin effort
(ii)The effective turning moment on the crank shaft. (16)
10. The turning moment diagram for a petrol engine is drawn to a scale of 1mm to 6N-9-9m and the horizontal scale of 1mm to 1˚.The turning moment repeat itself after every half revolution of the engine. The area above and below the mean torque line are 305, 710, 50,350,980and 275mm2. The mass of rotating parts is 40kg at a radius of gyration of 140mm.Clculate the coefficient of fluctuation of speed if the mean speed is 1500rpm. (16)
11. The torque delivered by a two stroke engine is represented by T= (1000+300sin2θ-500cos2θ) N-m where θ is the angle turned by the crank from the IDC. The engine speed is 250rpm.The mass of the flywheel is 400kg and radius of gyration 400mm. Determine ,
(i)the power developed
(ii)the total percentage fluctuation of speed
(iii)the angular acceleration of flywheel when the crank has rotated through an angle of 60˚ from the IDC.
PART-B (BALANCING) (16 marks)
1. A shaft is rotating at a uniform angular speed. Four masses M1, M2, and M3and M4 of magnitudes 300kg,
450kg, 360kg, 390kg respectively are attached rigidly to the shaft. The masses are rotating in the same plane. The corresponding radii of rotation are 200mm, 150mm, 250mmand 300mm respectively. The angle made by these masses with horizontal are 0˚.45˚, 120˚and 255˚respectively.
Find,(i) the magnitude of balancing mass
(ii) the position of balancing mass if its radius of rotation is 200mm. (16)
2. Four masses M1, M2, M3, and M4 are 200kg, 300kg, 240kg and 260kg respectively. The corresponding radii of rotation are 0.2m, 0.15m, 0.25m and 0.3m respectively and the angle between successive masses45˚, 75˚, and135˚.Find the position and magnitude of balance mass required if its radius of rotation is 0.25m. (16)
3. The data for three rotating masses are given below:-
| M1=4kg | r1=75mm | θ1=45 |
| M2=3kg | r2=85mm | θ2=135 |
| M3=2.5kg | r3=50mm | θ3=240 |
Determine the amount of counter mass at a radial distance of 65mm required for their static balance (16)
4. Four masses A, B, C, and D are completely balanced masses C and D makes angles of 90˚ and 195˚
respectively with B in the same sense. The rotating masses have the following properties:
5. A, B, C and D are four masses carried by a rotating shaft at radii 100mm,125mm,200mm and 150mm respectively. The planes in which the masses revolve are spaced 600mm apart and the masses of B,C and D are 10kg,5kg and 4kgrespectively.Find the required mass A and relative angular setting of the four masses so that the
6. Four masses A, B, C and D revolves at equal radii and equally spaced along a shaft. The mass B is 7kg and the radii of C and D make angle s of 90˚ and 240 ˚respectively with the radius of B.Find the magnitude of masses
7. A shaft caries four rotating masses A, B, C and D which are completely balanced. The masses B, C and Dare
50kg, 80kg and 70kg respectively. The masses C and D make angles of 90˚ and 195˚ respectively with mass B
in the same sense. The masses A,B,C and D are concentrated at radius 75mm,100mm,50mm and
8. A four cylinder vertical engine has cranks 150mm long. The plane of rotation of the first, second and fourth cranks are 400mm,200mm and 200mm respectively from that of the third crank and their reciprocating masses are 50kg,60kg and 50kg respectively. Find the mass of the reciprocating parts for the third cylinder and relative
9. A four cylinder vertical engine has cranks 300mm long. The plane of rotation of the first, third and fourth cranks are 750mm,1050mm and 1650mm respectively from that of the second crank and their reciprocating masses are 10kg,400kg and 250kg respectively. Find the mass of the reciprocating parts for the second cylinder and relative
angular position of the cranks in order that the engine may be in complete balance. (16)
10. Derive the following expression of effects of partial balancing in two cylinder locomotive engine
(i) Variation of tractive force (ii) Swaying couple (iii) Hammer blow (16)
PART-B (FREE VIBRATION) (16 marks)
1. Derive an expression for the natural frequency of the free longitudinal vibration by
(i)Equilibrium method (ii) Energy method (iii)Rayleigh’s method (16)
2. In a single degree of damped vibration system a suspended mass of 8kg makes 30 oscillations in 18 seconds. The amplitude decreases in 18 seconds. The amplitude decreases to 0.25 of the initial value after 5 oscillations. Determine (i) the spring stiffness (ii) logarithmic decrement (iii) damping factor (iv) Damping coefficient. (16)
3. Determine equation of motion when a liquid column vibrating in a ‘U’tube by
(i) Newton’s method (ii) Energy method and hence find its natural frequency. (16)
4. (i)Deduce the expression for the free longitudinal vibration in terms of spring stiffness, its inertia effect and suspended mass. (8)
(ii)A spring mass system has spring stiffness ‘s’N/m and has a mass of ‘m’kg.It has the natural frequency of vibration as 12Hz.An extra 2kg mass is coupled to ‘m’ and natural frequency reduces by 2Hz.Find the value of ‘s’ and ‘m’. (8)
5.Avibrating system consists of a mass of 8kg,spring of stiffness 5.6N/m and dashpot of damping coefficient of
40N/m/s.Find,(i)Critical damping coefficient (ii) the damping factor (iii)the natural frequency of damped vibration (iv)the logarithmic decrement(v)the ratio of two consecutive amplitude (vi)the number of cycle after which the original amplitude is reduced to 20 percent.
6. An instrument vibrates with a frequency of 1Hz when there is no damping. When the damping is provided, the frequency of damped vibration was observed to be 0.9Hz.
Find, (i) damping factor (ii) logarithmic decrement. (16)
7. Find the equation of notion for the spring mass-dashpot system for the cases when
(i) ζ = 2 (ii)ζ = 1 and (iii)ζ = 0.3. The mass ‘m’is displaced by a distance of 30mm and released (16)
8. Between a solid mass of 0kg and the floor are kept two slabs of isolates, natural rubber and felt, in series. The natural rubber slab has a stiffness of 3000N/m and equivalent viscous damping coefficient of 100 N-sec/m.The felt has a stiffness of 12000N/m and equivalent viscous damping coefficient of 330N-sec/m.Determine undamped
9. (i) A cantilever shaft 50mm diameter and 300mm long has a disc of mass 100kg at its free end. The young’s
modulus for the shaft material is 200GN/m2.SDetermine the frequency of longitudinal and transverse vibration of
10. The barrel of a large gun recoils against a spring on firing. At the end of the firing, a dashpot is engaged that allows the barrel to return to its original position in minimum time without oscillation. Gun barrel mass is 400kg and initial velocity of recoils 1m.Determine spring stuffiness and critical damping coefficient of dashpot. (16)
11. A steel shaft 100mm in diameter is loaded and support in shaft bearing 0.4m apart. The shaft carries three loads: first mass 12kg at the centre, second mass 10kg at a distance 0.12m from the left bearing and third mass of 7kg at a distance 0.09m from the right bearing. Find the value of the critical speed by using Dunker ley’s
11 2
PART-B (FORCED VIBRATION) (16 marks)
1.A mass of 50kg is supported by an elastic structure of total stiffness 20KN/m.The damping ratio of the system is 0.2.A simple harmonic disturbing force acts on the mass and at any time ‘t seconds, the force is 60sin10t newtons.Find amplitude of the vibration and phase angle caused by the damping. (16)
2. A mass of 50kg is supported by an elastic structure of total stiffness 20KN/m.The damping ratio of the system is 0.25.A simple harmonic disturbing force acts on the mass and at any time ‘t seconds, the force is 75cos12t newtons.Find amplitude of the vibration and phase angle caused by the damping. (16)
3. A mass of 10kg is suspended from one end of a helical spring, the other end being fixed. The stiffness of the spring is10N/mm.The viscous damping causes the amplitude to decreases to one-tenth of the initial value in four complete oscillations. If a periodic force of 150cos50t N is applied at the mass in the vertical direction .Find the amplitude of the forced vibrations? What is its value of resonance? (16)
4. A harmonic exiting force of 25N is acting on a machine part which is having a mass of 2Kg and vibrating in viscous medium. The exciting force causes resonant amplitude of 12.5mm with a period of 0.2sec.
(16)
5. A body having a mass of 15kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 12mm under the weight of the mass. Determine the frequency of the free vibrations. What is the viscous damping force needed to make the motion a periodic at a speed of 1mm/s?If, when damped to this extend a disturbing force having a maximum value of
100 and vibrating at 6Hz is made to act on the body, determine the amplitude of the ultimate motion. (16)
6. A single cylinder vertical petrol engine of total mass of 200kg is mounted upon a steel chassis frame. The vertical static deflection of the frame is 2.4mm due to the weight of the engine .The mass of the reciprocating
parts is 18kg and stroke of piston 160mm with S.H.M.If dashpot of damping coefficient of 1N/mm/s used to
damped the vibrations, calculate al steady state (i)Amplitude of vibrations at 500rpm engine speed.(ii)The speed
7. A vertical single stage air compressor having a mass of 500kg is mounted on spring having stiffness of
|
and dashpot with damping factor of 0.2m.The rotating parts are completely balanced and the
equivalent reciprocating parts weight 20kg.The stroke is 0.2m.Determine the dynamic amplitude of vertical motion
8. A machine 100kg has a 20kg rotor with 0.5mm eccentricity. The mounting spring have s=85x103.
The operating speed is 600rpm and the unit is constrained to move vertically. Find (i) Dynamic amplitude of
9.A single cylinder engine has an out of balance force of 500N at an engine speed of 30rpm.The total mass of engine is 150kg and its carried on a set of total stiffness 300N/cm.
(i) Find the amplitude of steady motion of the mass and maximum oscillating force transmitted to the foundation. (ii)If a viscous damping is interposed between the mass and the foundation the damping force 1000N at 1m/s of velocity, find the amplitude of force damped oscillation of the mass and its angle of lag with disturbing force. (16)
`
10. An industrial machine weighting 445kg is supported on a spring with a statical deflection of 0.5cm.If the machine has rotating imbalance of 25kg-cm.Determine the force transmitted at 1200rpm and the dynamic amplitude at the speed. (16)
11. The mass of an electric motor is 120kg and it runs at 1500rpm.The armature mass is 35kg and its centra gravity lies 0.5mm from axis of rotation. The motor is mounted on five springs of negligible damping. So that the force transmitted is one-eleventh of the impressed force. Assume that the mass of the motor is equally distributed
among the five springs. Determine (i) the stiffness of the spring (ii) the dynamic force transmitted to the base at the operating speed. (iii) Natural frequency of system. (16)
12. Find the stiffness of each spring when a refrigerator unit having a mass of 30kg is to be support by three springs. The force transmitted to the supporting structure is only 10% of the impressed force. The refrigerator unit
operates at 420rpm. (16)
UNIT-V (GOVERNOR AND GYROSCOPE)
PART-B (GOVERNOR AND GYROSCOPE)
1. A porter governor has equal arms each 250mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation. Each ball has a mass of 5kg and mass of the central load on the sleeve is 25kg.The radius of rotation of the ball is 150mm when governor is at maximum speed. Find the maximum and minimum speed and range of speed of the governor. (16)
2. The length of the upper and lower arms of a porter governor are 200mm and 250mm respectively. Both the arms are pivoted on the axis of rotation. The central load is 150N, the weight of the each ball is 20N and the friction of the sleeve together with the resistance of the operating gear is equivalent to a force of 30N at the sleeve. If the limiting inclinations of the upper arms to the vertical are 30˚ and 40˚ taking friction in to account. Find
the range of speed of the governor. (16)
3. Calculate the rage of speed of a porter governor which has equal arms of each 200mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation .The mass of each ball is 4kg and the central load of the sleeve is 20kg.The radius of rotation of the ball is 100mm when the governor being to lift and 130mm when the governor is at maximum speed.
(16)
4. A hartnell governor having a central sleeve spring and two right angled bell crank lever operates between
290rpm and 310rpm for a sleeve lift of 15mm.The sleeve and ball arms are 80mm and 120mm repectively.The
levers are pivoted at 120mm from the governoraxis and mass of the ball is 2.5kg.The ball arms are parallel at lowest equilibrium speed.Determine (i) load on the spring at maximum and minimum speeds and (ii) Stiffness of
the spring. (16)
5. A governor of hartnell type has equal balls of mass 3kg, set initially at a radius of 200mm.The arms of the bell-
crank lever are 110mm vertically and 150mm horizontally. Find (i) the initial compressive force on the spring at a radius of 200mm at240rpm and (ii) the stiffness of the spring required to permit a sleeve movement of 4mm on a
fluctuation of 7.5 percent in the engine speed. (16)
6. The controlling force in a spring controlled governor is 1500N when radius of rotation is 200mm and 887.5N
when radius of rotation is 130mm.The mass of each ball is 8kg.If the controlling force curve is a straight line,
then find (i) Controlling force at 150mm radius of rotation (ii) Speed of the governor at 150mm radius.(iii)Increase in initial tension so that governor is isochronous.
(iv) Isochronous speed. (16)
7. In a spring controlled governor, the controlling force curve is a straight line. When the balls are 400mm apart, the controlling force is 1200N and when 200mm apart, the controlling force is 450N.Determine the speed at which the governor runs when the balls are 250mm apart. When initial tension on the spring would be required for
isochronisms and what would be the speed. Take mass of each ball to be 10kg. (16)
8. Calclate the minimum speed of a proell governor, which has equal arms each of 200mm and are provided on the axis of rotation. The mass of each ball is 4kg and the central mass on the sleeve is 20kg.The extension arms of the lower links are each 60mm long and parallel to the axis when the minimum radius of the ball is
100mm.of
load. (16)
9. (i) Explain the effect of Gyroscopic couple on a Naval ship during pitching. (8) (ii) Explain the effect of Gyroscopic couple on a Aeroplane. (8)
10.Each paddle wheel of a steamer have a mass of 1600kg and a radius of gyration of 1.2meters.The steamer turns to port in a circle of 160meters radius at 24Km/hr.The speed of the paddle is 90rpm.Find the magnitude and
effect of the gyroscopic couple acting on the steamer. (16)
11. The rotor of a turbine yatch rotates at 1200rpm clockwise when viewed from stern. The rotor has a mass of
750 kg and radius of gyration of 250mm.Find the maximum gyroscopic couple transmitted to the hull when yacht pitches with a maximum angular velocity of 1 rad/s.What is the effect of this couple?
12. The turbine rotor of a ship has a mass of 20 tonnes and a radius of gyration 0.75.Its speed is
2000rpm.The ship pitches 6˚ above and below the horizontal position .One complete oscillation takes 18
(16)
seconds and the motion is simple harmonic. Determine (i) the maximum couple tending to shear the holding down bolt of the turbine
(ii)The maximum angular acceleration of the ship during pitching
(iii) The direction in which the bow will tend to turn while, if the rotation of the rotor is clockwise when locking from
rear. (16)
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